Polity Notes

MINI TEST -3 -Polity (M.Laxmikanth) Answers Chapter-1 to Chapter-22( Sectional Test) ( DESIRE IAS)

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MINI TEST -3 Answers

Syllabus – Polity M.laxmikanth Chapter-1 to Chapter-22( Sectional Test)

Total Questions -40

Total Time -45 Minutes 

 

 

 

1-Consider a situation where the Prime Minister wants to impose President’s rule in one state because the state government has failed to effectively curb atrocities in that state. The president does not agree wholeheartedly on signing the order.

Which of the following course of actions are available to the President?

  1. Tell the Prime Minister that he will not sign on the order promulgating President’s rule.
  2. Make press statement about how the Prime Minister is wrong.
  3. Discuss the matter with the Prime Minister and try to dissuade him from taking this action, but if he insists agreeing to sign the said order.

Choose the correct answer from the codes below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Ans: D

Exp: Article 74

(1) There shall be a Council of Ministers with the PM at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advises. (The matter in bold letters is added by the Forty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India in the year 1977) Provided that the President may require the

Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or otherwise, and the President shall act in accordance with the advises tendered after such reconsideration. (This para is added by the Forty-fourth  mendment of the Constitution of India in the year 1978)

 

 

2-Consider the following about the proportional representation system of election.

  1. The entire country may be single constituency in this system.
  2. Multi member constituencies may be present.
  3. A party may get more seats than votes in the legislature.

Choose the correct answer from the codes below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

Ans: A

Exp: Proportional representation is a type of electoral system that decides the make-up of a

parliament by allocating seats on the basis of the number of votes each party received. Although

there are many different types of PR, this is the base requirement for a system to be described as

proportional. Rather than the winner-take all approach of other systems, PR ensures that votes carry equal

weight. To do this, multi-member constituencies are used. This means that a single area elects

more than one representative. The size of this area can vary according to the system, ranging

from the size of the whole country to a county or local vicinity.

 

 

3-In the state government, the Governor exercise more discretion than the President can exercise in the case of Central Government. This is because….

(a) Indian Federalism provides for a strong central government, and comparatively weaker states.

(b) The Constitutional provisions limit the overall discretion of the President, which is not so clearly defined for the Governor.

(c) The Governor derives greater authority from the order of the Central government with respect to the states whereas no such system exists for the President.

(d) The state politics is much more vulnerable to Governor’s discretion that the central politics is to President’s discretion.

Ans: B

Exp: Article 74(1) clearly prescribes that the president is bound by the advice of the COM.

Whereas in the case of Governor, the respective provision does not make the advice of the COM in

state binding on him.

 

 

 

4-Consider the following statements about the Constituent Assembly of India.

  1. Its constitution was finally subject to the approval of the British Parliament.
  2. The selection of representatives of various Indian states was flexible and decided by consultation.
  3. Members of the CA from provinces were elected directly from the people by a very limited franchise.

Which of the following above is/are true?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

Ans: D

Exp: Under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, elections were held for the first time for the

Constituent Assembly. The Constitution of India was drafted by the Constituent Assembly, and it

was implemented under the Cabinet Mission Plan on 16 May 1946. The members of the Constituent

Assembly were elected by the provincial assemblies by a single, transferable-vote system

of proportional representation. The total membership of the Constituent Assembly was

389: 292 were representatives of the states, 93 represented the princely states and four were

from the chief commissioner provinces of Delhi, Ajmer-Mewar, Coorg and British Baluchistan.

 

 

5-The Government of India Act, 1919 popularly known as Montague Chelmsford Act was significant in which of the following ways?

  1. Established a responsible Parliamentary system of Government in the country.
  2. The final decision on all important questions was no more in the hands of the Viceroy.
  3. It relaxed previously stringent control of center on provinces.

Which of the following above is/are true?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

 

Ans: D

Exp: 1919 act brought dyarchy to provinces,there by relaxing central control over

provinces…despite dyarchy majority of decisions and final say was in e hands of viceroy

 

 

6-The list of castes or tribes that are to be identification as SCs and STs are specified in

(a) A presidential order with respect to each State and Union Territory(UT).

(b) The Fifth and Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India

(c) The resolution passed by the respective state legislatures.

(d) The orders issued by the state Governor in the extra-ordinary Gazette of India

Ans: A

Exp: The constitution does not specify the castes or tribes which are to be called the SCs or the

STs. It leaves to the president the power to specify as to what castes or tribes in each state and UT

are to be treated as so in case of states concerned, the president issue the notification

after consulting the governor of the state. But, any inclusion or exclusion of any cast or tribe

from presidential notification can be done only by the Parliament and not by subsequent

presidential notification.

 

 

7-Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution deal with maintaining the social fabric, moral values and national consciousness?

  1. Fundamental Rights
  2. Fundamental Duties
  3. Directive Principles of State Policy

Choose the correct answer from the codes below?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

Ans: D

Exp: FR clearly establish a secular, equitable, just and non-exploitative social fabric in India.

FD provide a secular, fraternity and a patriotic aspect to the Indian citizens by making them

respect the constitution, national flag, asking them render services to the nation and mankind

etc.

DPSP does so by providing for a more equitable work culture in men and women, minimizing

inequalities in social and economic status: establishing the ideal of a welfare society

 

 

8-Consider the following statements about the position, power, functions and responsibilities of the President of India.

  1. He has a right to be informed of all important matters and deliberations of the Council of Ministers.
  2. The president need not accept the advice of Council of Ministers if the advice has been given for the first time.
  3. The only ground for his impeachment is the violation of the Constitution.
  4. He scrutinizes the annual budget proposal of the government before placing it to the Parliament.

Choose the correct answer from the codes below?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

 

Ans: B

Exp: Article 74

(1) There shall be a Council of Ministers with the PM at the head to aid and advise the

President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such

advises. (The matter in bold letters is added by the Forty-second Amendment of

the Constitution of India in the year 1977) Provided that the President may require the

Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or otherwise, and the President

shall act in accordance with the advises tendered after such reconsideration. (This para is added by

the Forty-fourth Amendment of the Constitution of India in the year 1978)

(2) The question if any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the President

shall not be inquired into in any court. Duties of Prime Minister as respects the

furnishing of information to the President, etc It shall be the duty of the Prime Minister

(a) To communicate to the President all decisions of the council of Ministers

relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislation;

(b) To furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union

and proposals for legislation as the President may call for; and

(c) If the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers

any matter on which a decision has been

taken by a Minister but which has not

been considered by the Council

 

 

9-The Constitution contains not only the fundamental principles of governance but also detailed administrative provisions.This fact can be supported by looking up in which of the following provisions of Constitution?

  1. Fifth and Sixth Schedule
  2. Center-State relations
  3. Appointment and functions ofseveral constitution bodies.

Choose the correct answer from the codes below?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

Ans: D

Exp: Schedule 5 and 6 areas not only defined and demarcated by the constitution, but also several

administrative provisions like tribal advisory council; powers of gram sabhas in those areas.

center-state relations have been given in so much detail containing even the minutest of provisions

of taxation, administration and finances.

 

 

10-Which of the following do NOT require a Constitution amendment?

  1. Settlement of boundary dispute between India and other country.
  1. Changing the name of a state
  2. Creation of new state

Choose the correct answer from the codes below?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

Ans: D

Exp: Laws made under Articles 2 and 3 to provide for the amendment of the First and the

Fourth Schedules and supplemental, incidental and consequential matters

(1) Any law referred to in Article 2 or Article 3 shall contain such provisions for the amendment

of the First Schedule and the Fourth Schedule as may be necessary to give effect to the provisions

of the law and may also contain such supplemental, incidental and consequential

provisions (including provisions as to representation in Parliament and in the

Legislature or Legislatures of the State or States affected by such law) as Parliament may deem

necessary

(2) No such law as aforesaid shall be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the

purposes of Article 368. The supreme court in 1969 ruled that Settlement

of boundary Dispute between India and other country does not require a constitutional

amendment. It also done by executive action as it does not involve cession of Indian territory to a

foreign country.

 

 

11-Consider the following statements:

  1. In India, citizens by birth as well as a naturalized citizen are eligible for the office of the President.
  2. Foreigners staying in India do not have to oblige to the Fundamental Duties.
  3. The Constitution does not prescribe any qualification for citizenship.

Choose the correct answer from the codes below?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

Ans: A

Exp: Article 5-8 conferred citizenship on each person who met the criteria at the

commencement of the Constitution. However it contains neither any permanent nor any

elaborate provisions in this regard. It only identifies the persons who became citizens of

India at its commencement. It does not deal with the problems of acquisition or loss of citizenship

subsequent to its commencement. It leaves the same to Parliament.

 

 

12-India has adopted the Parliamentary system of Government. It is based on the principle of

(a) Doctrine of separation of powers between the legislature and executive organs

(b) Cooperation and Co-ordination between the legislative and executive organs

(c) Doctrine of separation of powers between the legislature and judicial organs

(d) Doctrine of separation of powers between the judicial and executive organs

Ans: B

 

 

13-Among the committees of the Constitution Assembly, the most important committee was the Drafting Committee. Who among the following were NOT the members of the committee?

  1. N.GopalaswamyAyyangar
  2. Syed Mohammad Saadullah
  3. T.T. Krishnamachari
  4. Dr.K.M.Munshi

Choose the correct answer from the codes below

(a) 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) All were the members

Ans: D

Exp: The Drafting Committee for framing the constitution was appointed on 29 August 1947.

The committee comprised of a chairman and six other members. In addition a constitutional

advisor was also appointed.

The committee members were:

Dr B. R. Ambedkar – Chairman

K M Munshi (Ex- Home Minister, Bombay)

Alladi Krishna swamyIyer (Ex- Advocate General,Madras State)

N Gopalaswamin Ayengar (Ex-Prime Minister,J&K, member of Nehru Cabinet)

B L Mitter (Ex-Advocate General, India)

Md. Saadullah (Ex- Chief Minister of Assam,Muslim League member)

D P Khaitan (lawyer).

 

14-State Emergency or President’s Rule can be applied to an Indian state on which of the following grounds?

  1. Failure to comply with Center’s directions
  1. Breakdown of the Constitutional machinery in the state
  1. Threat to the financial stability of the state
  1. Internal aggression in the state

Choose the correct answer from the codes below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3only

Ans: A

Exp: President’s Rule Grounds of Imposition Article 355 imposes a duty on the Centre to

ensure that the government of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions of

the Constitution. It is this duty in the performance of which the Centre takes over the

government of a state under Article 356 in case of failure of constitutional machinery in state. This

is popularly known as ‘President’s Rule’. It is also known as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional

Emergency’.

The President’s Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356 on two grounds—one mentioned in

Article 356 itself and another in Article 365:

  1. Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a

situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on

in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Notably, the president can

act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (i.e., even without

the governor’s report).

  1. Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any

direction from the Centre, it will be lawful for the president to hold that a situation

has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance

with the provisions of the Constitution

 

 

15-The term ‘State’ has been used in different provisions concerning the Fundamental Rights against which the citizens are protected. ‘State’ can include which of the following?

  1. A public sector undertaking
  2. District Planning Committee
  3. A Private party under a Public Private Partnership(PPP) contract with the government

Choose the correct answer from the codes below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

Ans: D

Exp: Executive and legislature of Union and states include union & state governments along

with Parliament and state legislatures. The President of India and Governors of states can

also be referred as ‘State’ as they are a part of the executive. The term ‘government’ also includes

any department of government or any institution under its control. The Income Tax Department

and the International Institute for Population Sciences could be cited as examples.

‘Local authorities’, as used in the definition, refer to municipalities, panchayats or similar

authorities that have the power to make laws & regulations and also enforce them. The

expression ‘Other authorities’ could refer to any entity that exercises governmental or sovereign

functions.

Both statutory and non-statutory bodies can be considered as a ‘State’ provided they get financial

resources from the government and “have deep pervasive control of government and with

functional characters”. ONGC, Delhi Transport Corporation, IDBI, and Electricity Boards are

referred as a ‘State’. However, entities such as NCERT cannot be considered a ‘State’ as they are

not substantially financed by the government and the government control is not pervasive

 

 

16-Article 23 of the Constitution prohibits traffic in human beings, forced labour and other similar forms of forced labour. It is enforced by which of the following laws made by the parliament?

  1. Minimum wages Act, 1948
  2. Contract labour Act, 1970
  3. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976

Choose the correct answer from the codes below

(a) All of the above

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

 

 

Ans: A

Exp: Traffic in human beings and begar and other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited

and any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. (2)

Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from imposing compulsory service for public purposes,

and in imposing such service the State shall not make any discrimination on grounds only of

religion, race, caste or class or any of them.”

Slavery in its ancient form may not so much be a problem in every State today but its newer forms

which are labelled in the Indian Constitution under the general term “exploitation” are no less a

serious challenge to human freedom and civilisation. It is in this view that our Constitution, instead of using the word ‘slavery’

uses the more comprehensive expression ‘traffic in human beings’ which includes a prohibition

not only of slavery but also of traffic in women or children or the crippled, for immoral or other

purposes.

In this regard, the Bonded Labour System (abolition) act 1976, Equal Remuneration Act,

1976, Contract labour Act, 1970 and Minimum wages Act, 1948 were made

 

 

17-Although India is a secular country, the state can take some steps to ensure public order, morality and the like. Which of the following can be done by the state constitutionally?

  1. Regulate a religious institution
  2. Throw open Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and section of Hindus.
  1. Restrict a religious practice

Choose the correct answer from the codes below?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

Ans: D

Exp: Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion

(1) Subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all

persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess,

practise and propagate religion

(2) Nothing in this article shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent

the State from making any law 

(a) Regulating or restricting any economic,financial, political or other secular activity

which may be associated with religious practice;

(b) Providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious

institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus

Explanation I The wearing and carrying of kirpans shall be deemed to be included in

the profession of the Sikh religion Explanation II In sub clause (b) of clause

reference to Hindus shall be construed as including a reference to persons professing

the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion, and the reference to Hindu religious

institutions shall be construed

 

 

18-In the colonial legacy of government in India, the Directive Principles in the present Indian Constitution resemble

which of the following colonial enactments?

(a) ‛Codes’ enacted under Act of 1919

(b) ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enacted under Independence Act, 1947

(c) ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935

(d) ‛Duties of State’ enumerated in the Morley-Minto Act of 1909

 

Ans: C

Exp: go through the act.

 

 

19-As per Article 368 of the Constitution, the amendment of the Indian Constitution

can be initiated in

  1. Lok Sabha
  2. Rajya Sabha
  3. The office of the President
  4. State Legislatures
  5. Council of Ministers

Choose the correct answer from the codes below

(a) 1, 3 and 5 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 5 only

Ans: B

Exp: An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill in

either House of Parliament. The Bill must then be passed in each House by a majority of the total

membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that

House present and voting. There is no provision for a joint sitting in case of disagreement between

the two Houses. The Bill, passed by the required majority, is then presented to the President who

shall give his assent to the Bill. If the amendment seeks to make any change in any of the

provisions mentioned in the proviso to article 368

 

 

20-The Parliament exercise controls over the Government using which of the following

devices?

  1. Question Hour
  2. Adjournment motion
  3. Discussion
  4. Parliamentary committees

Choose the correct answer from the codes below

(a) All of the above

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans: A

Exp: Parliament exercise the control by asking question to the ministers through its members,

by raising adjournment motions, cut motions, censure motions or debates. More importantly the

Lok Sabha can pass a vote of no confidence against the Council of Ministers which compels it

to resign collectively. Thus the parliament holds the ministers responsible individually and

collectively. This critical function of the Parliament ensures a responsive and responsible

government.

 

21-regarding the powers of both the houses of a state legislature, if it is bicameral, in

India:

  1. An ordinary bill can be introduced in any house of the legislature.
  1. A joint sitting of both the houses may be summoned if there is a disagreement between both the houses on an ordinary bill
  1. The Legislative Council has almost no powers in relation to finance

Which of the following above is/are true?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: C

 

22-Which among the following statements is/are correct regarding the Indian

Constitution?

  1. To amend the Constitution under Article 368, two third majority of the total membership of the houses of the Parliament is required.
  1. If any question arises as to whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the President shall be final
  1. No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once, including any departmental proceedings

Select the correct answers from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

Ans: D

Exp: An amendment of this Constitution may be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the

purpose in either House of Parliament, and when the Bill is passed in each House by a majority of

the total membership of that House present and voting, it shall be presented to the President who

shall give his assent to the Bill and thereupon the Constitution shall stand amended in accordance

with the terms of the Bill.

If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the

House of the People thereon shall be final .The question of double jeopardy is not applicable

in the case of any departmental proceedings

 

 

23-Who among the following are parts of the Union Executive of India?

  1. The President
  2. Council of Ministers
  3. Attorney General
  4. Comptroller and Auditor General

Select the correct answers from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Ans: C

Exp: under chapter I (part V) of the Indian Constitution only the President, Council of

Ministers, Attorny General are mentioned as part of Union Executive. The CAG is mentioned under

Chapter V (Part V) as an independent body.

 

 

24-Which of the following statements regarding voting on demand of grants

is/are correct ?

  1. The voting on demands for grants is an exclusive privilege of the Rajya Sabha; Lok Sabha has no power on demands.
  1. The voting confined to the votable part of the budget; the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is not submitted to vote

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: B

Exp: The voting on demands for grants is an exclusive privilege of the LokSabha-RajyaSabha

has no power on demands

 

 

25-According to Preamble of the Indian Constitution, India is a ‛Republic’. What is the meaning of the Republic?

  1. There is no hereditary rule
  2. The sovereignty resides in the people
  3. The head of the Government is elected by the people of fixed term

Select the correct answers from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: C

Exp: “the sovereignty of people” is a feature of a democratic government but not a republic.

 

26-Consider the following Rights:

  1. Right to equality before law
  2. Right to Freedom
  3. Right to Protection of Life and Personal Liberty

The Indian Constitution provides which of the above Fundamental right/rights only to its Citizens?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans: B

Exp: Right to equality before law (article 14) and Right to Protection of Life and Personal Liberty

(article 21) are provided to aliens also.

 

 

27-Which of the following is the constitutional duty of the Prime Minister of India?

(a) To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the

affairs of the union and to proposals for legislation.

(b) To take prior permission of the President for the introduction of bills in the Parliament.

(c) To present all Parliament reports as well as recommendations of various commissions to the President

(d) To take the President’s permission for the appointment of the Protem speaker of the Lok Sabha

Ans: A

Exp: Roles of the Prime Minister of India.

  • Forms the Government:
  • Allocation of Portfolios:
  • Shuffling of his Pack:
  • Chairman of the Cabinet:
  • Coordinator:
  • Leader of the Lok Sabha:
  • Link between the President and the Cabinet:

 

 

28-Which of the following statements regarding the special status of Jammu and Kashmir is/are correct?

  1. The Fundamental Right to property is still guaranteed in Jammu and Kashmir.
  1. The President of India has no power to declare a financial emergency in relation to the state.
  1. An amendment made to the Constitution of India does not apply to the state unless it is extended by a Presidential order.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: D

Exp: J & K has its own Constitution hence all the given statements regarding it are correct.

 

 

29-Which of the following are components of Inter-State Council?

  1. Prime Minister
  2. Chief Minister of all States
  3. Chief Ministers of Union Territories that have a legislative Assembly and Administrative of UTs that do not have a Legislative Assembly
  4. Six Union Ministers
  5. Governor if a state is under President’s rule.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: D

Exp: As the article 263 makes it clear, the Inter- State Council is not a permanent constitutional

body for coordination between the States of the Union. It can be established ‘at any time’ if it

appears to the President that the public interests would be served by the establishment of such a

Council.

The Council shall consist of:-

  1. a) Prime Minister – Chairman
  2. b) Chief Ministers of all States -Member
  3. c) Chief Ministers of Union Territories having a

Legislative Assembly and Administrators of UTs not having a Legislative Assembly –

Member

  1. d) Six Union Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Union Council of Ministers nominated by

the Prime Minister – Member

The Presidential Order of 1990 has been amended twice vide Orders dated 19 July 1990

and 24 December 1996 providing for Governor of a State under President’s rule to attend the

meeting of the Council and nomination by the Chairman of permanent invitees from amongst

the other Union Ministers, respectively.

 

 

 

30-Which of the following features of the Constitution of India have been borrowed from the Government of India Act, 1935?

  1. Office of the Governor
  2. Emergency Provisions
  3. Legislative Procedure
  4. Bicameralism
  5. Federation with a strong Center

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

Ans: C

Exp: Legislative Procedure and Bicameralism are borrowed from the constitution of UK,

whereas Federation with a strong Center are borrowed from the constitution of Canada.

 

 

31-Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to proclamation of financial emergency in India?

  1. It can be extended to indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months.
  2. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by simple majority.
  3. The President may issue directions for reduction of salaries and allowances of Supreme Court and High Court Judges.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: B

Exp: Once approved it may continue for indefinite period.

 

 

32-Consider the following statements regarding Inner Line Permit (IPL) system:

  1. It is an official travel document issued by Indian Government to allow inward travel of an Indian citizen into a protected or restricted area for a limited period.
  2. It is issued under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation, 1873 and currently it is in force in Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Meghalaya.
  3. Recently Union Government has rejected the demand to introduce it in Mizoram.

Which of the states given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: A

Exp: Inner Line Permit (ILP) is an official travel document issued by the Government of India to

allow inward travel of an Indian citizen into a protected area for a limited period. It is obligatory

for Indian citizens from outside those states to obtain a permit for entering into the protected

state. The document is an effort by the government to regulate movement to certain

areas located near the international border of India. This is an offshoot of the Bengal Eastern

Frontier Regulations, 1873, which protected Crown’s interest in the tea, oil and elephant trade

by prohibiting “British subjects” from entering into these “Protected Areas” (to prevent them from

establishing any commercial venture that could rival the Crown’s agents) . The word “British

subjects” was replaced by Citizen of India in Despite the fact that the ILP was originally

created by the British to safeguard their commercial interests, it continues to be used in

India, officially to protect tribal cultures in northeastern India.

The states which require the permit are Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and

 

 

33-Consider the following statements regarding the Estimates Committee of the Indian Parliament:

  1. It consists of members from Lok Sabha only.
  2. Its Chairman is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha but he/she cannot be from the ruling party.
  3. A minister cannot be elected as its member.
  4. Its function is to examine the estimates included in the budget and suggest economies in public expenditure.
  5. It cannot suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 4 and 5 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

(d) All of the above

Ans :B

Exp.: The Estimate Committee consists of 30 members elected by the Lok Sabha

from among its members according the representation by means of the single

transferable vote. It’s chairman is appointed by the speaker. No minister can

be elected as member of this committee. It can suggest alternative policies in order to

bring about efficiency and economy in administration.

 

 

34-Consider the following:

  1. To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture.
  1. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
  1. To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance.
  1. To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health.

Which of the given above are not included as Fundamental duties in the Article 51A of the Constitution of India?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Ans 😀

Exp.: The statements 3 and 4 i.e. to protect monuments, places and objects of

artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance and to

prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to

health are directive principles under part IV of the Constitution.

 

 

35-The term ‘secular state’ in the context of Indian Constitution refers to:

(a) The state is anti-religious

(b) The state has a religion

(c) The state is irreligious

(d) The state avoids preferential treatment for any particular religion.

Ans 😀

Exp.: A secular state is a concept of secularism, whereby a state or country

purports to be officially neutral in matters of religion supporting neither religion not

irreligion. A secular state also claims to treat all its citizens equally regardless of religion

and claims to avoid preferential treatment for a citizen from a particular religion or nonreligion

over other religion or non-religion.

 

36-Which of the following grants is raised,when the amount authorized by Appropriation Act to be expended for a particular service in the current financial year is found to be insufficient?

(a) Supplementary Grant

(b) Exceptional Grant

(c) Vote of credit

(d) Vote on account

Ans :A

Exp.: Article 116 of the Indian Constitution provides for vote on account,

vote of credit and exceptional grants. Supplementary grant is mentioned in the

Article 115.

 

 

37-Which among the following are not considered as expenditure charged on Consolidated Fund of India (CFI)?

(a) The debt charges, including interest, for which the Government of India is liable.

(b) The salary, allowances and pension payable to Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

(c) The salary, allowances and pension payable to Chief Election Commissioner.

(d) Any sums required to satisfy any judgment decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal.

Ans :C

Exp.: Article 112(3) provides list of expenditures which shall be taken as

expenditures charged on the consolidated fund of India and it does not mention about

the salary and other payments to the Chief Election Commissioner.

 

 

38-Why Indian federalism is termed asymmetric federalism?

(a) Some states are given special status and privilege.

(b) Indian Constitution has numerous unitary or non-federal features.

(c) The Union enjoys unbridled power and authority.

(d) Some states do not have legislative councils.

Ans :A

Exp.: Unlike the constitutional symmetry of American federalism, Indian

federalism has been a symmetric. By introducing the articles concerning

Jammu and Kashmir and the North-East, the Indian Constitution anticipates the very

important concept of asymmetric federalism.

 

 

39-Consider the following statements regarding Zero Hour:

  1. It follows the Question Hour.
  2. The Zero Hour is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
  3. During Zero Hour, members are free to bring up any issue of public interest without prior notice.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans :C

Exp.: The Zero Hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. Thus it is

informal device available to the members of the parliament to raise any issue of

public interest without prior notice

 

 

40-Consider the following statements:

  1. Rajya Sabha can pass motion of no confidence against the government.
  2. Resolutions approving the Proclamation of emergency are passed only by the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: D

 Exp.: Unlike Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha cannot pass motion of no confidence against

the government. Rajya Sabha has the equal powers with the Lok Sabha in initiating

and passing a resolution declaring war or national emergency (by two-thirds majority)

or constitutional emergency (by simple majority) in a state.