DESIREIAS QUIZ

25th October Daily Current Affairs MCQ Answers

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25th October Daily MCQ Answers

Q- Committee which recommends appointment of CBI Director consists of which of the following?

1- Central Vigilance Commissioner
2- Union Minister of Home Affairs
3- Prime Minister
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A-1 only
B-1, 3 only
C- 2, 3 only
D- All of the above

Ans-A

MCQ Source – 25th October 2018 , front page-Topic-Centre gets mired in CBI crisis
Explanation

Organization of CBI –
• CBI Academy is located at Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh.

• It started functioning in 1996.

CBI has the following divisions –

(a) Anti-Corruption Division.

(b) Administration Division.

(c) Directorate of Prosecution.

(d) Central Forensic Science Laboratory.

(e) Economic Offences Division.

(f) Special Crimes Division.

(g) Policy and International Police Cooperation Division.

Composition of CBI –
• A Director heads the CBI.

• A special director or an additional director assists the Director.

• It has joint directors, deputy inspector generals, superintendents of police and all other usual ranks of police personnel.

• It also has some law officers.

• By the CVC Act of 2003, Director of CBI has been given security of tenure of 2 years.

• Mechanism for the selection of the Director of CBI and other officers of the rank of SP and above in the CBI has also been given by the CVC Act of 2003.

• The Director of CBI in role of the Inspector-General of Police, Delhi Special Police Establishment, is responsible for the administration of the Delhi Special Police Establishment.

• By the CVC Act, 2003, the superintendence of Delhi Special Police Establishment now rests with the Union Government except investigations of offences which come under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, in which, the superintendence still rests with the Central Vigilance Commission.

• A committee recommends Union Government regarding Director of the CBI.

The committee consists of –

(a) Central Vigilance Commissioner as Chairperson.

(b) Vigilance Commissioners.

(c) Secretary to the Government of India, Ministry of Home Affairs.

(d) Secretary (Coordination and Public Grievances) in the Cabinet Secretariat.

 

 

Q-Consider the following statements
1-The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1950

2-Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) comes under the administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs
3- The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is exempt from the Right to Information (RTI) Act
4-Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is a part of the Union subject, and not State or Concurrent subjects
5- Integrity, Excellence, Perfection is the motto of Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

Select the Not Correct answer using the code given below
A- Only 1,
B- Only 1,2,4
C- Only 1,2,5
D- only 2,3
MCQ Source – 25th October 2018 , front page-Topic-Centre gets mired in CBI crisis

Ans-C

 

 

Q- Consider the following statements

1- CVC has Central Vigilance Commissioner (Chairperson) and not more than Four vigilance commissioners
2- The Central Commission submits an annual report to the Union Government.
3- The Commission have statutory status.
4-President appoints them on the recommendation of a three-member committee. The committee consists of – Prime Minister, as its head;,Union Minister of home affairs;Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha

Select the Not Correct answer using the code given below
A- Only 1,
B- Only 1,2,3
C- Only 2
D- only 4
MCQ Source – 25th October 2018 , The Hindu Newspaper,front page-Topic-Centre gets mired in CBI crisis

Ans-A

Exp-
Central Vigilance Commission –
• It is aimed at preventing corruption and was established by executive resolution of Union Government in 1964.

• Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962-64) recommended its formation.

• It was only recently in 2003 that a law was passed giving statutory status to CVC.

• This authorized the CVC as the ‘Designated Agency’ to receive written complaints for disclosure on any allegation of corruption or misuse of office and recommend appropriate action.

Composition of CVC –
• CVC has Central Vigilance Commissioner (Chairperson) and not more than two vigilance commissioners.

• Thus, it is a multi-member body.

• President appoints them on the recommendation of a three-member committee.

The committee consists of –

(a) the Prime Minister, as its head;

(b) the Union Minister of home affairs; and

(c) the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
• They hold office for a term of 4 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

• They are not eligible for further employment under the Central or a State Government once their tenure is over.

The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner can be removed by the President –

(a) if he is adjudged an insolvent; or

(b) if he has been convicted of an offence which (in the opinion of the Central Government) involves a moral turpitude; or

(c) if he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or

(d) if he is (in the opinion of the President), unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body; or

(e) if he has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his official functions.
• President can remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner for proved misbehavior or incapacity, but, in that scenario, he has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry.

• If the Supreme Court, on enquiry, finds the person guilty and advises the same, the president can remove the Chairman or a member.

• Central Vigilance Commissioner and Chairman of UPSC have similar salary, allowances etc.

• The vigilance commissioner and member of UPSC have similar salary, allowances etc.

• Service conditions cannot be varied against the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner.

 

 

Q-Consider the following statements Buddhist
1- Chakmas are Hindus , and Hajongs are Buddhist
2-Chakmas and Hajongs are Indigenous Tribes of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A- Only 1
B- Only 2
C- Both are Correct
D- None of the Above
Ans-D
• Exp-
• Chakmas and Hajongs were originally residents of the Chittagong Hill Tracts of erstwhile East Pakistan, who had to flee when their land was submerged by the Kaptai dam project in the 1960s.
• The Chakmas, who are Buddhist, and Hajongs, who are Hindus, also faced religious persecution in East Pakistan (now Bangladesh).
• Chakmas and Hajongs entered India through the then Lushai Hills district of Assam (now Mizoram).
• Within the Chittagong Hill Tracts, the Chakmas are the largest ethnic group and make up half of the region’s population.
• The Chakma possess strong genetic affinities to Tibeto-Burman groups in Northeast India and to East Asian populations.
• In Assam Chakma people have scheduled tribe status.
• They also have high frequencies of mainland Indian genetic ancestry.
• Hajong are the fourth largest ethnicity in Meghalaya.
• Hajongs are predominantly rice farmers and have the status of a Scheduled Tribe in India(Assam and Meghalaya)
• According to officials, the number of these refugees has increased from about 5,000 in 1964-69 to 1,00,000.
• While some stayed back with the Chakmas already in the district, the Indian government moved a majority of Chakmas and Hajong to the North East Frontier Agency (NEFA), which is now Arunachal Pradesh.
• At present, they do not posses citizenship and land rights, but are provided basic amenities by the state government

 

 

Q-Consider the following statements
1- Bharat stage (BS) is based on Euro & USA norms.
2.Bharat stage emission standards (BSES) are emission standards instituted by the Government of India to regulate the output of air pollutants from internal combustion engines and Spark-ignition engines equipment, including motor vehicles
3.The country will have to shift to the cleaner Bharat- VI fuel from April 1, 2020

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A-1,2
B-1,3
C-2,3
D-all of the above

Ans-C
MCQ Source- The Hindu ,Page-10 SC bans sale of BSIV vehicles from 2020

 

 

Q-Consider the following statements

1-Barak 8 missile is an air-to-air missile
2- It designed and developed jointly by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia Aerospace Industries
3- It designed to defend against any type of airborne threat including aircraft, helicopters, anti-ship missiles, and UAVs as well as cruise missiles and combat jets.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A-only 1
B- only 2,3
C- only 3
D-all of the above

Ans-C
Exp-
Barak 8 missile is an Indian-Israeli surface-to-air missile (SAM),
supersonic LRSAM, designed and developed jointly by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI)
It designed to defend against any type of airborne threat including aircraft, helicopters, anti-ship missiles, and UAVs as well as cruise missiles and combat jets.

Features of Barak8

Israel Aerospace Industries describe Barak 8 as “an advanced, long-range missile defense and air defense system” with its main features being:

• Long Range
• Two way data link (GPS S band)
• Active Radar Seeker Missile
• 360 degree coverage
• Vertical Launch
• Multiple Simultaneous Engagements

Barak 8 has been described as giving potential use as a point defence anti-ballistic missile due to its combination of advanced capabilities

 

 

Q-Consider the following statements

1-In IMF all members of the IBRD are also IMF members, and vice versa
2-A member’s quota in the IMF determines the amount of its subscription, its voting weight, its access to IMF financing, and its allocation of Special Drawing Rights (SDRs).
•3-A member state cannot unilaterally increase its quota—increases must be approved by the Executive Board of IMF and are linked to formulas that include many variables such as the size of a country in the world economy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A-only 1
B- only 2,3
C- only 3
D-all of the above
Ans-D

 

 

Q-Which of the following is/are true regarding advocates of Supreme Court?

1-Designation of ‘Senior Advocate’ can be given by a high court too.
2- Only advocates-on-record are allowed to file document before the Supreme Court.
3-Other advocates are not allowed to file any document or matter before the Supreme Court.

A-1, 2
B-1, 3
C-2, 3
D- All of the above

Ans-D

MCQ Source- 25th The Hindu Newspaper ,page-7 topic-Lokayukta from Feb., T.N. tells SC

Explanation:
3 types of Advocates can practice law before the Supreme Court –

Senior Advocates –
• They are advocates who are designated as Senior Advocates by the Supreme Court of India itself or by any High Court in India.

• Any advocate can be designated as Senior Advocate by the Court, if the court feels that by virtue of advocate’s ability, special knowledge or experience of law or his/her standing at Bar, he/she deserves such distinction.

• A Senior Advocate is not allowed to appear without an Advocate-on-Record in the Supreme Court or without a junior in any other court or tribunal in India.

• He is also not allowed to accept requests to draw pleadings or affidavits, advise on evidence or do any drafting work of similar kind in any court or tribunal in India.

• He cannot undertake conveyancing work of any kind.

• But this restriction is not applicable when any such matter is settled in consultation with a junior.

Advocates-on-Record –
• Only these advocates are allowed to file any matter or document before the Supreme Court.

• They can also file an appearance or act for a party in the Supreme Court.

• No other high court in India has a similar provision.

Other Advocates –
• These Advocates can appear and argue any matter on behalf of a party in the Supreme Court.

• But they are not allowed to file any document or matter before the Court.

• These advocates have their names on the roll of any State Bar Council maintained under the Advocates Act, 1961.

 

 

Q-Which of the following fall under the original jurisdiction of Supreme court?

1- Dispute between Union and States.
2- Disputes amongst states.
3- Inter-State water disputes.
4- Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other.
5- Dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant etc.

A- 1, 2, 4 ,5
B- 1, 2 ,4
C- 2 , 3 only
D-All of the above

Ans-C
Exp

Ans- B
Explanation:
Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court –

Supreme Court decides the disputes between –

1. the Centre and one or more states; or

2. between two or more states; or

3. the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other.
• For these, Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction.

• No other court can decide such disputes.

• Original means to hear such disputes at the first instance and not by way of appeal.

• But, the dispute must involve a question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.

• Questions of political nature are not included.

• Also, any suit against the Centre or a state,brought before the Supreme Court,by a private citizen cannot be entertained under this.

Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to the following –

(a) Recovery of damages by a state against the Centre.

(b) Matters referred to the Finance Commission.

(c) Dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant etc.

(d) Dispute arising out of any treaty, etc., which specifically mentions that court’s original jurisdiction will not be applicable to it.

(e) Inter-state water disputes.

(f) Adjustment of some expenses and pensions between the Centre and states.

(g) Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature between the Centre and states.
• The first suit, under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, was brought by West Bengal against the Centre in 1961.